EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers 2026

EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers 2026

The Economic and Financial Crimes Commission (EFCC) Recruitment Computer-Based Test (CBT) is an important stage of the recruitment process for candidates seeking employment with the Commission.

This EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers pack contains 230 practice questions designed to help candidates prepare for the recruitment examination. It covers Nigerian government and history, EFCC operations, anti-corruption laws, Information and Communication Technology (ICT), workplace communication, professional ethics, general knowledge and economics.

Each question includes multiple-choice options, the correct answer and an explanation to help candidates understand the subject and improve their examination performance.

The practice material is intended for candidates preparing for the EFCC recruitment CBT. It is independently prepared and does not contain leaked examination questions or represent an official EFCC examination syllabus.

Quick Facts

• Examination: EFCC Recruitment Computer-Based Test (CBT)
• Organisation: Economic and Financial Crimes Commission (EFCC)
• Material: Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers
• Number of Practice Questions: 230
• Question Format: Multiple-choice questions
• Answers: Provided
• Explanations: Provided
• Practice Sections: Five
• Target Audience: Candidates preparing for EFCC recruitment examinations
• Preparation Method: Self-study and timed practice
• Official Status: Independent examination preparation material

What Are the EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers?

The EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers are study materials designed to help candidates prepare for the Commission’s recruitment examination.

The questions cover different subjects that candidates may need to understand when preparing for a recruitment examination involving law enforcement, financial investigations, public administration and general knowledge.

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The practice pack contains 230 questions divided into five sections:

1. Nigerian Government, History and Civic Knowledge – 45 questions.
2. EFCC Knowledge, Anti-Corruption and Investigative Principles – 56 questions.
3. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) – 44 questions.
4. Workplace Communication, Ethics and Professional Conduct – 40 questions.
5. General Knowledge, Economics and International Organisations – 45 questions.

Is This EFCC CBT Practice Pack Right for You?

You should use this practice material if:

• You have applied for an EFCC recruitment opportunity and are preparing for the CBT.
• You intend to apply for an EFCC recruitment exercise and want to improve your examination readiness.
• You want to understand the EFCC’s responsibilities and anti-corruption operations.
• You need to revise Nigerian government, history and civic knowledge.
• You want to improve your ICT knowledge and computer literacy.
• You want to practise workplace communication, ethics and professional conduct questions.
• You need additional practice in general knowledge and basic economics.

What Does the EFCC CBT Practice Pack Cover?

The practice pack contains 230 questions across five major examination preparation areas.

Section 1: Nigerian Government, History and Civic Knowledge

This section covers Nigeria’s political structure, history, government institutions, national symbols and civic responsibilities.

It includes questions on:

• Nigeria’s independence and republican status.
• The Nigerian Constitution.
• The three arms of government.
• Federalism and separation of powers.
• The National Assembly.
• Nigerian states and geopolitical zones.
• National symbols and historical personalities.
• Government agencies and their responsibilities.
• Elections and democratic governance.
• Fundamental civic knowledge.

Practice Questions and Answers

1. What is the capital of Nigeria?

A. Lagos

B. Abuja

C. Kaduna

D. Ibadan

Answer: B. Abuja

Explanation: Abuja is Nigeria’s federal capital.

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2. Nigeria gained independence on ______.

A. 1 October 1960

B. 1 October 1963

C. 29 May 1999

D. 1 January 1960

Answer: A. 1 October 1960

Explanation: Nigeria became independent from Britain on 1 October 1960.

3. Nigeria became a republic in ______.

A. 1959

B. 1960

C. 1963

D. 1979

Answer: C. 1963

Explanation: Nigeria became a republic on 1 October 1963.

4. How many states are in Nigeria?

A. 30

B. 32

C. 36

D. 37

Answer: C. 36

Explanation: Nigeria has 36 states and the Federal Capital Territory.

5. How many geopolitical zones does Nigeria have?

A. Four

B. Five

C. Six

D. Seven

Answer: C. Six

Explanation: Nigeria is commonly grouped into six geopolitical zones.

6. What is the official language of Nigeria?

A. Hausa

B. Yoruba

C. English

D. Igbo

Answer: C. English

Explanation: English is Nigeria’s official language.

7. What is the currency of Nigeria?

A. Cedi

B. Naira

C. Dalasi

D. Rand

Answer: B. Naira

Explanation: The naira is Nigeria’s currency.

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8. Which arm of government makes laws?

A. Executive

B. Legislature

C. Judiciary

D. Civil Service

Answer: B. Legislature

Explanation: The legislature makes laws.

9. Which arm of government interprets laws?

A. Executive

B. Legislature

C. Judiciary

D. Police

Answer: C. Judiciary

Explanation: The judiciary interprets laws and adjudicates disputes.

10. Which arm of government implements government policies?

A. Executive

B. Legislature

C. Judiciary

D. Electoral body

Answer: A. Executive

Explanation: The executive implements laws and government policies.

11. Nigeria operates which system of government?

A. Unitary

B. Federal

C. Confederal

D. Monarchical

Answer: B. Federal

Explanation: Nigeria operates a federal system of government and is a federal republic.

12. What is the supreme law of Nigeria?

A. Electoral Act

B. Constitution

C. Penal Code

D. Civil Service Rules

Answer: B. Constitution

Explanation: The Constitution is the supreme law of Nigeria.

13. What is the minimum voting age in Nigeria?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 18

D. 21

Answer: C. 18

Explanation: Citizens aged 18 and above can vote if they meet the other legal requirements.

14. Which body conducts federal and state elections in Nigeria?

A. EFCC

B. INEC

C. NCC

D. NERC

Answer: B. INEC

Explanation: The Independent National Electoral Commission conducts elections in Nigeria.

15. What does INEC stand for?

A. Independent National Electoral Commission

B. International Nigerian Electoral Council

C. Independent National Executive Committee

D. Internal National Electoral Commission

Answer: A. Independent National Electoral Commission

Explanation: INEC means Independent National Electoral Commission.

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16. Who is the head of a state government?

A. President

B. Governor

C. Speaker

D. Chief Judge

Answer: B. Governor

Explanation: A governor heads the executive arm of a state government.

17. Who presides over the Nigerian Senate?

A. Speaker

B. Chief Justice

C. Senate President

D. Vice-President

Answer: C. Senate President

Explanation: The Senate President presides over the Senate.

18. The National Assembly consists of ______.

A. Senate and House of Representatives

B. Senate and Supreme Court

C. Governors and ministers

D. House of Assembly and courts

Answer: A. Senate and House of Representatives

Explanation: Nigeria’s federal legislature is bicameral and consists of the Senate and House of Representatives.

19. How many senators represent each state?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Answer: C. Three

Explanation: Each state elects three senators, while the Federal Capital Territory elects one senator.

20. Who designed the Nigerian national flag?

A. Wole Soyinka

B. Taiwo Akinkunmi

C. Chinua Achebe

D. Ben Enwonwu

Answer: B. Taiwo Akinkunmi

Explanation: Taiwo Akinkunmi designed the Nigerian national flag.

21. What do the green stripes on the Nigerian flag traditionally represent?

A. Peace

B. Agriculture and natural wealth

C. The sea

D. Unity alone

Answer: B. Agriculture and natural wealth

Explanation: Green represents agriculture and natural wealth, while white represents peace.

22. Which city was Nigeria’s first federal capital?

A. Abuja

B. Lagos

C. Enugu

D. Calabar

Answer: B. Lagos

Explanation: Lagos served as Nigeria’s federal capital before Abuja.

23. Who was Nigeria’s first Prime Minister?

A. Nnamdi Azikiwe

B. Abubakar Tafawa Balewa

C. Yakubu Gowon

D. Olusegun Obasanjo

Answer: B. Abubakar Tafawa Balewa

Explanation: Abubakar Tafawa Balewa was Nigeria’s first Prime Minister.

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24. Who was Nigeria’s first President?

A. Nnamdi Azikiwe

B. Tafawa Balewa

C. Shehu Shagari

D. Murtala Mohammed

Answer: A. Nnamdi Azikiwe

Explanation: Nnamdi Azikiwe became Nigeria’s first President when the country became a republic in 1963.

25. In which year did Nigeria return to civilian democratic rule after military rule in the 1990s?

A. 1993

B. 1995

C. 1999

D. 2003

Answer: C. 1999

Explanation: Nigeria’s Fourth Republic began on 29 May 1999.

26. What is the name of Nigeria’s national legislature?

A. Federal Executive Council

B. National Assembly

C. Council of State

D. National Judicial Council

Answer: B. National Assembly

Explanation: The National Assembly comprises the Senate and House of Representatives.

27. Which institution is responsible for monetary policy and issuing legal tender in Nigeria?

A. CBN

B. NBS

C. FIRS

D. NPA

Answer: A. CBN

Explanation: The Central Bank of Nigeria manages monetary policy and currency issuance.

28. What does CBN stand for?

A. Central Bank of Nigeria

B. Commercial Bank Network

C. Council of Banking Nigeria

D. Central Bureau of National Accounts

Answer: A. Central Bank of Nigeria

Explanation: CBN means Central Bank of Nigeria.

29. Which agency is primarily responsible for collecting federal taxes?

A. NEMA

B. FIRS

C. FRSC

D. NCC

Answer: B. FIRS

Explanation: The Federal Inland Revenue Service administers federal tax collection.

30. What does NBS stand for?

A. National Bureau of Statistics

B. Nigerian Banking Service

C. National Board of Security

D. Nigerian Bureau of Standards

Answer: A. National Bureau of Statistics

Explanation: The National Bureau of Statistics produces official statistics in Nigeria.

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31. Which agency manages Nigeria’s general elections?

A. INEC

B. EFCC

C. ICPC

D. NDLEA

Answer: A. INEC

Explanation: INEC is Nigeria’s electoral management body.

32. Which Nigerian city is widely known as the country’s commercial centre?

A. Lagos

B. Jos

C. Makurdi

D. Yola

Answer: A. Lagos

Explanation: Lagos is a major commercial and financial centre in Nigeria.

33. The River Niger and River Benue meet at ______.

A. Lokoja

B. Onitsha

C. Warri

D. Abeokuta

Answer: A. Lokoja

Explanation: The two rivers converge at Lokoja, Kogi State.

34. Which is the largest Nigerian state by land area?

A. Lagos

B. Niger

C. Kano

D. Anambra

Answer: B. Niger

Explanation: Niger State is the largest state in Nigeria by land area.

35. Which Nigerian state has the smallest land area?

A. Lagos

B. Anambra

C. Ebonyi

D. Imo

Answer: A. Lagos

Explanation: Lagos State is the smallest Nigerian state by land area.

36. What is the title of Nigeria’s national anthem that begins with the words “Nigeria, we hail thee”?

A. Arise, O Compatriots

B. Nigeria, We Hail Thee

C. One Nation, One People

D. Land of Promise

Answer: B. Nigeria, We Hail Thee

Explanation: Nigeria, We Hail Thee is the restored national anthem.

37. What is the role of the legislature in a democracy?

A. Make laws and oversee government

B. Try all criminal cases

C. Command every private company

D. Print currency

Answer: A. Make laws and oversee government

Explanation: Law-making and oversight are core legislative functions.

38. A constitution primarily establishes ______.

A. Rules and structure of government

B. Prices of all goods

C. Private company policies

D. Religious doctrine

Answer: A. Rules and structure of government

Explanation: A constitution establishes government institutions, powers, responsibilities and fundamental rights.

39. What does FCT stand for?

A. Federal Council Territory

B. Federal Capital Territory

C. Foreign Capital Town

D. Federal Civil Territory

Answer: B. Federal Capital Territory

Explanation: FCT means Federal Capital Territory.

40. Which body is responsible for road safety administration in Nigeria?

A. FRSC

B. NIMC

C. NCC

D. NUPRC

Answer: A. FRSC

Explanation: The Federal Road Safety Corps promotes road safety and enforces relevant traffic regulations.

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41. What does NYSC stand for?

A. National Youth Service Corps

B. Nigerian Youth Security Council

C. National Young Students Commission

D. National Youth Support Committee

Answer: A. National Youth Service Corps

Explanation: NYSC means National Youth Service Corps.

42. Which body registers political parties and conducts elections in Nigeria?

A. INEC

B. EFCC

C. NCC

D. NEMA

Answer: A. INEC

Explanation: INEC registers political parties and conducts elections.

43. The principle that government power is divided among three arms is called ______.

A. Separation of powers

B. Collective ownership

C. Judicial review only

D. Local autonomy

Answer: A. Separation of powers

Explanation: Separation of powers divides government authority among the executive, legislature and judiciary.

44. What is the main purpose of local government?

A. Grassroots administration

B. Foreign affairs

C. Printing national currency

D. Commanding the armed forces

Answer: A. Grassroots administration

Explanation: Local government provides administration and services at the grassroots level.

45. Which body is Nigeria’s apex court?

A. Federal High Court

B. Court of Appeal

C. Supreme Court

D. Magistrate Court

Answer: C. Supreme Court

Explanation: The Supreme Court is the highest court in Nigeria.

Section 2: EFCC Knowledge, Anti-Corruption and Investigative Principles

This section focuses on the Economic and Financial Crimes Commission, financial crimes, anti-corruption principles and investigative procedures.

It covers:

• EFCC establishment and responsibilities.
• Money laundering and financial fraud.
• Bribery, embezzlement and corruption.
• Cybercrime and identity theft.
• Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Countering the Financing of Terrorism (CFT).
• Financial intelligence and suspicious transactions.
• Asset tracing and recovery.
• Forensic accounting and financial investigations.
• Evidence preservation and chain of custody.
• Investigative ethics and due process.

Practice Questions and Answers

1. What does EFCC stand for?

A. Economic and Financial Crimes Commission

B. Economic Federal Crime Council

C. Executive Financial Control Commission

D. Economic Fraud Control Committee

Answer: A. Economic and Financial Crimes Commission

Explanation: EFCC means Economic and Financial Crimes Commission.

2. In what year was the EFCC established?

A. 1999

B. 2001

C. 2003

D. 2007

Answer: C. 2003

Explanation: The EFCC was established in 2003.

3. Which law principally established the EFCC?

A. EFCC (Establishment) Act 2004

B. Companies Act 1990

C. Police Act 2020

D. Evidence Act 2011

Answer: A. EFCC (Establishment) Act 2004

Explanation: The EFCC (Establishment) Act 2004 provides its statutory foundation.

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4. Which of the following is a core EFCC responsibility?

A. Investigation of economic and financial crimes

B. Conducting elections

C. Issuing driver’s licences

D. Regulating universities

Answer: A. Investigation of economic and financial crimes

Explanation: The EFCC investigates and enforces laws relating to economic and financial crimes.

5. Which agency is primarily responsible for drug law enforcement in Nigeria?

A. EFCC

B. NDLEA

C. INEC

D. NEMA

Answer: B. NDLEA

Explanation: The National Drug Law Enforcement Agency is responsible for drug law enforcement.

6. Which agency focuses on corruption and other related offences within its statutory mandate?

A. ICPC

B. NCC

C. FRSC

D. NIMC

Answer: A. ICPC

Explanation: ICPC means Independent Corrupt Practices and Other Related Offences Commission.

7. What is money laundering?

A. Concealing the illicit origin of proceeds of crime

B. Saving money in a bank

C. Paying lawful taxes

D. Exchanging foreign currency legally

Answer: A. Concealing the illicit origin of proceeds of crime

Explanation: Money laundering disguises criminal proceeds as legitimate funds.

8. What is bribery?

A. Offering, giving, requesting or receiving an undue advantage

B. Paying a lawful fee

C. Making a charitable donation

D. Receiving a salary

Answer: A. Offering, giving, requesting or receiving an undue advantage

Explanation: Bribery involves an improper advantage intended to influence conduct.

9. What is embezzlement?

A. Misappropriation of money entrusted to one’s care

B. A lawful investment

C. A routine audit

D. A tax refund

Answer: A. Misappropriation of money entrusted to one’s care

Explanation: Embezzlement involves the fraudulent appropriation of entrusted funds.

10. What is identity theft?

A. Using another person’s identifying information without authority

B. Updating one’s own details

C. Applying for a passport

D. Changing a phone number

Answer: A. Using another person’s identifying information without authority

Explanation: Identity theft involves the unauthorised use of another person’s identity information.

11. What is cybercrime?

A. Crime committed using computers or digital networks

B. Only crimes committed outdoors

C. A civil disagreement

D. A lawful online transaction

Answer: A. Crime committed using computers or digital networks

Explanation: Cybercrime involves computers, networks or digital systems.

12. What is advance-fee fraud commonly associated with?

A. Obtaining money by promising a benefit after an upfront payment

B. Paying tax in advance

C. A salary advance from an employer

D. A bank’s lawful service charge

Answer: A. Obtaining money by promising a benefit after an upfront payment

Explanation: Victims are persuaded to make upfront payments for a promised but deceptive benefit.

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13. What does KYC mean in financial services?

A. Know Your Customer

B. Keep Your Cash

C. Key Yearly Credit

D. Know Your Currency

Answer: A. Know Your Customer

Explanation: KYC is a customer identification and due diligence process.

14. What is the purpose of customer due diligence?

A. Understand and verify customers and assess risks

B. Guarantee every customer a loan

C. Avoid keeping records

D. Replace all court processes

Answer: A. Understand and verify customers and assess risks

Explanation: Due diligence helps identify customers, beneficial owners and potential risks.

15. What is a suspicious transaction?

A. A transaction that raises reasonable grounds for suspicion under applicable rules

B. Every large transaction automatically

C. Only a cash withdrawal

D. A transaction made on a weekend

Answer: A. A transaction that raises reasonable grounds for suspicion under applicable rules

Explanation: Suspicion depends on the transaction’s context, indicators and applicable reporting rules.

16. What is a red flag in financial investigation?

A. An indicator that may warrant further scrutiny

B. Proof of guilt in every case

C. A court judgement

D. A routine office memo

Answer: A. An indicator that may warrant further scrutiny

Explanation: A red flag signals possible risk but is not proof of wrongdoing by itself.

17. What is asset tracing?

A. Following the movement and ownership of assets

B. Destroying financial records

C. Issuing a new passport

D. Preparing a payroll

Answer: A. Following the movement and ownership of assets

Explanation: Asset tracing identifies where assets have moved and who controls them.

18. What is asset recovery?

A. Identifying, restraining, forfeiting or returning proceeds of crime through lawful processes

B. Giving suspects new assets

C. Selling all seized property privately

D. Cancelling tax obligations

Answer: A. Identifying, restraining, forfeiting or returning proceeds of crime through lawful processes

Explanation: Asset recovery uses legal procedures to recover proceeds or instrumentalities of crime.

19. What is a search warrant?

A. A judicial authorisation to search specified premises or items under stated conditions

B. A staff identity card

C. A recruitment letter

D. A bank statement

Answer: A. A judicial authorisation to search specified premises or items under stated conditions

Explanation: A warrant is issued by a competent judicial authority and must be executed lawfully.

20. Why is chain of custody important?

A. It documents how evidence was collected, handled, stored and transferred

B. It proves a suspect is guilty automatically

C. It replaces witness testimony

D. It allows evidence to be altered

Answer: A. It documents how evidence was collected, handled, stored and transferred

Explanation: A reliable chain of custody supports evidence integrity and admissibility.

21. What is forensic accounting?

A. Applying accounting and investigative skills to examine financial evidence

B. Preparing ordinary budgets only

C. Auditing building structures

D. Designing computer hardware

Answer: A. Applying accounting and investigative skills to examine financial evidence

Explanation: Forensic accounting examines financial information for disputes or suspected wrongdoing.

22. What is the purpose of an audit trail?

A. To record activities and transactions so they can be traced

B. To hide changes to records

C. To delete old transactions

D. To prevent all investigations

Answer: A. To record activities and transactions so they can be traced

Explanation: An audit trail records who did what and when.

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23. What does a whistleblower do?

A. Reports suspected wrongdoing through an appropriate channel

B. Destroys official documents

C. Accepts bribes

D. Interferes with evidence

Answer: A. Reports suspected wrongdoing through an appropriate channel

Explanation: A whistleblower reports suspected misconduct or wrongdoing.

24. What is a conflict of interest?

A. A situation where personal interests may improperly influence official duties

B. A disagreement over office furniture

C. A normal staff meeting

D. A lawful promotion

Answer: A. A situation where personal interests may improperly influence official duties

Explanation: A conflict arises when private interests may compromise impartiality.

25. What is abuse of office?

A. Using official position improperly for personal or other unauthorised benefit

B. Performing assigned duties

C. Taking annual leave

D. Following due process

Answer: A. Using official position improperly for personal or other unauthorised benefit

Explanation: Abuse of office involves the misuse of official authority.

26. What is procurement fraud?

A. Dishonesty or manipulation in the purchase of goods, works or services

B. Buying goods through an approved process

C. Publishing a tender openly

D. Conducting a fair evaluation

Answer: A. Dishonesty or manipulation in the purchase of goods, works or services

Explanation: Procurement fraud involves manipulating purchasing processes for improper gain.

27. What is a shell company?

A. A company with little or no significant active operations, sometimes used to conceal ownership or funds

B. Every newly registered company

C. A government ministry

D. A company listed on a stock exchange

Answer: A. A company with little or no significant active operations, sometimes used to conceal ownership or funds

Explanation: Shell entities may be misused to obscure beneficial ownership or financial transactions.

28. Who is a beneficial owner?

A. The natural person who ultimately owns or controls an entity or arrangement

B. The company’s receptionist

C. Any customer of the company

D. The public relations officer

Answer: A. The natural person who ultimately owns or controls an entity or arrangement

Explanation: Beneficial ownership looks beyond nominees to identify the natural person exercising ultimate ownership or control.

29. What is insider dealing?

A. Trading or dealing using material non-public information in breach of applicable law

B. Reading a public annual report

C. Buying shares through a regulated market using public information

D. Opening a savings account

Answer: A. Trading or dealing using material non-public information in breach of applicable law

Explanation: Insider dealing involves the misuse of material non-public information.

30. What is the purpose of freezing or restraining assets?

A. To prevent assets from being dissipated while legal proceedings continue

B. To reward an investigator

C. To transfer assets to a suspect

D. To avoid judicial oversight

Answer: A. To prevent assets from being dissipated while legal proceedings continue

Explanation: Restraint preserves assets pending lawful proceedings.

31. Which principle requires a suspect to be treated as not guilty until proven guilty?

A. Presumption of innocence

B. Collective punishment

C. Strict liability in every case

D. Public opinion

Answer: A. Presumption of innocence

Explanation: The presumption of innocence is a fundamental fair-trial principle.

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32. Why must investigators avoid coercion?

A. To protect rights and ensure statements and evidence are obtained lawfully

B. To make investigations slower

C. To avoid writing reports

D. To protect evidence from review

Answer: A. To protect rights and ensure statements and evidence are obtained lawfully

Explanation: Coercion may violate rights and undermine the reliability or admissibility of evidence.

33. What should an investigator do when offered a bribe?

A. Reject it, document and report the incident through proper channels

B. Accept it secretly

C. Negotiate a higher amount

D. Ignore all reporting duties

Answer: A. Reject it, document and report the incident through proper channels

Explanation: An investigator must remain impartial and report attempted corruption.

34. What is the main purpose of interviewing a witness?

A. To obtain relevant information and clarify facts

B. To force the witness to agree with a theory

C. To coach the witness

D. To replace documentary evidence automatically

Answer: A. To obtain relevant information and clarify facts

Explanation: A proper interview gathers accurate information without coercion or coaching.

35. What is corroboration?

A. Independent evidence that supports or confirms other evidence

B. A rumour repeated many times

C. An investigator’s personal belief

D. A suspect’s silence

Answer: A. Independent evidence that supports or confirms other evidence

Explanation: Corroboration is supporting evidence from another source.

36. Why should evidence be preserved promptly?

A. To prevent loss, contamination, alteration or destruction

B. To make it difficult to review

C. To remove the need for records

D. To allow unauthorised access

Answer: A. To prevent loss, contamination, alteration or destruction

Explanation: Prompt preservation protects the integrity and availability of evidence.

37. What is a financial intelligence unit generally concerned with?

A. Receiving, analysing and disseminating financial intelligence under law

B. Conducting school examinations

C. Issuing driving permits

D. Managing elections

Answer: A. Receiving, analysing and disseminating financial intelligence under law

Explanation: Financial intelligence units process financial information and share intelligence with competent authorities.

38. What does AML stand for?

A. Anti-Money Laundering

B. Annual Money Ledger

C. Automated Market Listing

D. Approved Monetary Limit

Answer: A. Anti-Money Laundering

Explanation: AML refers to measures designed to prevent and detect money laundering.

39. What does CFT stand for?

A. Countering the Financing of Terrorism

B. Central Financial Transfer

C. Certified Funds Tracking

D. Cash Flow Tax

Answer: A. Countering the Financing of Terrorism

Explanation: CFT measures seek to prevent and disrupt terrorist financing.

40. What is terrorist financing?

A. Providing or collecting funds or resources for terrorist purposes

B. Every international remittance

C. A lawful humanitarian donation

D. Paying a utility bill

Answer: A. Providing or collecting funds or resources for terrorist purposes

Explanation: Terrorist financing involves funds intended to support terrorist acts or organisations.

41. What is tax evasion?

A. Illegally avoiding tax through concealment or false statements

B. Claiming a lawful tax relief

C. Paying tax before the deadline

D. Requesting a tax receipt

Answer: A. Illegally avoiding tax through concealment or false statements

Explanation: Tax evasion is the unlawful non-payment or underpayment of tax through deception.

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42. How does tax avoidance differ from tax evasion in general usage?

A. Avoidance uses lawful arrangements; evasion is illegal concealment or deception

B. They are always identical

C. Avoidance is always a criminal offence

D. Evasion is always lawful

Answer: A. Avoidance uses lawful arrangements; evasion is illegal concealment or deception

Explanation: The distinction is legality, although abusive avoidance may be challenged under tax law.

43. What is a Ponzi scheme?

A. A fraudulent arrangement that pays earlier participants with funds from later participants

B. A regulated pension plan

C. A government savings bond

D. A cooperative society by definition

Answer: A. A fraudulent arrangement that pays earlier participants with funds from later participants

Explanation: A Ponzi scheme depends on new investor funds rather than genuine investment returns.

44. What is phishing?

A. A deceptive attempt to obtain sensitive information through fake messages or websites

B. A method of encrypting files

C. A lawful software update

D. A physical search

Answer: A. A deceptive attempt to obtain sensitive information through fake messages or websites

Explanation: Phishing uses impersonation or deception to steal credentials or personal information.

45. What is social engineering in cybersecurity?

A. Manipulating people into revealing information or taking unsafe actions

B. Repairing computer hardware

C. Writing a database query

D. Encrypting a hard drive

Answer: A. Manipulating people into revealing information or taking unsafe actions

Explanation: Social engineering exploits human behaviour rather than relying only on technical weaknesses.

46. What should staff do with confidential case information?

A. Share it only with authorised persons for legitimate official purposes

B. Post it on social media

C. Discuss it with friends

D. Store it on an unsecured public device

Answer: A. Share it only with authorised persons for legitimate official purposes

Explanation: Confidentiality and need-to-know access protect investigations and privacy.

47. What is the purpose of an investigation report?

A. To present facts, methods, evidence and findings clearly and objectively

B. To express personal anger

C. To guarantee conviction

D. To conceal contradictory evidence

Answer: A. To present facts, methods, evidence and findings clearly and objectively

Explanation: An investigation report should be accurate, balanced, evidence-based and clear.

48. What is due process?

A. Following lawful procedures and respecting legal rights

B. Doing whatever produces a quick result

C. Punishing a suspect before trial

D. Ignoring court orders

Answer: A. Following lawful procedures and respecting legal rights

Explanation: Due process requires lawful and fair procedures.

49. What is corruption?

A. Abuse of entrusted power for private gain

B. Every administrative delay

C. A lawful public-private partnership

D. A routine tax payment

Answer: A. Abuse of entrusted power for private gain

Explanation: Corruption involves the misuse of entrusted authority for improper benefit.

50. What is extortion?

A. Obtaining money or advantage through threats or coercion

B. A voluntary donation

C. A lawful invoice

D. A bank transfer between consenting parties

Answer: A. Obtaining money or advantage through threats or coercion

Explanation: Extortion involves obtaining value through threats or coercion.

51. What is a kickback in procurement?

A. An undisclosed payment or benefit given in return for awarding or influencing a contract

B. A legitimate refund disclosed in the contract

C. A standard salary payment

D. A public tender notice

Answer: A. An undisclosed payment or benefit given in return for awarding or influencing a contract

Explanation: Kickbacks are improper benefits linked to business or procurement decisions.

52. Why is impartiality important in enforcement work?

A. It ensures decisions are based on evidence and law, not favouritism

B. It allows selective enforcement

C. It removes accountability

D. It guarantees a particular outcome

Answer: A. It ensures decisions are based on evidence and law, not favouritism

Explanation: Impartiality protects fairness, credibility and public trust.

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53. What should an officer do if a close relative is involved in a case assigned to the officer?

A. Disclose the conflict and follow reassignment or ethics procedures

B. Hide the relationship

C. Destroy the file

D. Privately negotiate with the relative

Answer: A. Disclose the conflict and follow reassignment or ethics procedures

Explanation: Disclosure and recusal help manage conflicts of interest.

54. What is the difference between intelligence and evidence?

A. Intelligence guides inquiry; evidence is material presented or relied on in legal proceedings under applicable rules

B. They are always identical

C. Intelligence is always admissible

D. Evidence never needs authentication

Answer: A. Intelligence guides inquiry; evidence is material presented or relied on in legal proceedings under applicable rules

Explanation: Intelligence may generate investigative leads, while evidence must satisfy applicable legal requirements.

55. What is the safest approach to an unverified allegation?

A. Treat it as a lead requiring lawful verification, not as established fact

B. Publish it as proven

C. Arrest everyone mentioned

D. Alter records to fit it

Answer: A. Treat it as a lead requiring lawful verification, not as established fact

Explanation: Allegations must be independently verified and handled fairly.

56. What is the role of public accountability?

A. Ensuring public power and resources are subject to answerability and oversight

B. Giving officials unlimited discretion

C. Preventing citizens from asking questions

D. Replacing the courts

Answer: A. Ensuring public power and resources are subject to answerability and oversight

Explanation: Accountability helps prevent abuse and promotes responsible public service.

Section 3: Information and Communication Technology (ICT)

This section covers basic computer knowledge, digital literacy, internet usage, cybersecurity and common office applications.

It includes questions on:

• Computer hardware and software.
• Input and output devices.
• Computer memory and operating systems.
• Microsoft Word, Excel and PowerPoint.
• Internet and web browsers.
• Computer networks and databases.
• Cybersecurity and malware.
• Password protection and authentication.
• Email communication.
• Data storage and encryption.

Practice Questions and Answers

1. What does ICT stand for?

A. Information and Communication Technology

B. International Computer Transfer

C. Internet Control Technique

D. Information Coding Tool

Answer: A. Information and Communication Technology

Explanation: ICT means Information and Communication Technology.

2. Which component is commonly called the brain of a computer?

A. Monitor

B. CPU

C. Keyboard

D. Mouse

Answer: B. CPU

Explanation: The Central Processing Unit executes computer instructions.

3. Which of these is an input device?

A. Monitor

B. Printer

C. Keyboard

D. Speaker

Answer: C. Keyboard

Explanation: A keyboard sends data into a computer.

4. Which of these is an output device?

A. Mouse

B. Scanner

C. Monitor

D. Microphone

Answer: C. Monitor

Explanation: A monitor displays computer output.

5. What does RAM stand for?

A. Random Access Memory

B. Read Access Machine

C. Rapid Application Module

D. Remote Allocation Memory

Answer: A. Random Access Memory

Explanation: RAM means Random Access Memory.

6. Which memory is generally volatile?

A. ROM

B. RAM

C. DVD

D. Flash drive

Answer: B. RAM

Explanation: RAM normally loses its contents when power is removed.

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7. What does ROM stand for?

A. Read-Only Memory

B. Random Output Memory

C. Run Operating Machine

D. Read Online Module

Answer: A. Read-Only Memory

Explanation: ROM means Read-Only Memory.

8. Which of these is an operating system?

A. Windows

B. Microsoft Word

C. Google Chrome

D. Adobe Reader

Answer: A. Windows

Explanation: Windows is an operating system.

9. Which software is mainly used for spreadsheets?

A. Microsoft Excel

B. Microsoft Paint

C. Notepad

D. PowerPoint

Answer: A. Microsoft Excel

Explanation: Excel is spreadsheet software.

10. Which application is mainly used to create slide presentations?

A. Excel

B. PowerPoint

C. Access

D. Notepad

Answer: B. PowerPoint

Explanation: PowerPoint is presentation software.

11. What is a web browser?

A. Software used to access websites

B. A computer power cable

C. A type of printer

D. A spreadsheet formula

Answer: A. Software used to access websites

Explanation: Web browsers retrieve and display web content.

12. Which of these is a web browser?

A. Google Chrome

B. Windows Defender

C. Microsoft Excel

D. Linux Kernel

Answer: A. Google Chrome

Explanation: Google Chrome is a web browser.

13. What does URL stand for?

A. Uniform Resource Locator

B. Universal Record Link

C. User Reference List

D. Unified Routing Language

Answer: A. Uniform Resource Locator

Explanation: A URL identifies the location of a resource on the web.

14. What does HTTPS indicate?

A. An encrypted connection using HTTP over TLS

B. A website is always truthful

C. A computer has no virus

D. A file is public

Answer: A. An encrypted connection using HTTP over TLS

Explanation: HTTPS protects data in transit but does not guarantee that a website is trustworthy.

15. What is phishing?

A. A fraudulent attempt to steal sensitive information

B. A backup process

C. A programming language

D. A file compression method

Answer: A. A fraudulent attempt to steal sensitive information

Explanation: Phishing commonly uses deceptive emails, text messages or websites.

16. What is malware?

A. Malicious software

B. A hardware component

C. A spreadsheet

D. A safe password

Answer: A. Malicious software

Explanation: Malware is software designed to harm, disrupt or gain unauthorised access to computer systems.

17. Which is an example of strong password practice?

A. Use a unique long passphrase and enable MFA

B. Reuse one short password everywhere

C. Share passwords with colleagues

D. Use your date of birth

Answer: A. Use a unique long passphrase and enable MFA

Explanation: Unique long passwords and multifactor authentication improve account security.

18. What does MFA mean?

A. Multi-Factor Authentication

B. Main File Access

C. Multiple Folder Arrangement

D. Managed Firewall Application

Answer: A. Multi-Factor Authentication

Explanation: MFA requires two or more different authentication factors.

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19. What is a firewall used for?

A. Controlling network traffic according to security rules

B. Printing documents

C. Increasing screen brightness

D. Creating presentations

Answer: A. Controlling network traffic according to security rules

Explanation: A firewall filters network connections according to defined security rules.

20. What is a backup?

A. A separate copy of data for recovery

B. A deleted file

C. A computer virus

D. A password hint

Answer: A. A separate copy of data for recovery

Explanation: Backups help restore data after loss or damage.

21. What is cloud computing?

A. Delivering computing services over a network, commonly the internet

B. Storing files only on paper

C. Using a computer without electricity

D. A type of monitor

Answer: A. Delivering computing services over a network, commonly the internet

Explanation: Cloud services provide resources such as storage and processing remotely.

22. Which file extension is commonly associated with a PDF document?

A. .docx

B. .pdf

C. .xlsx

D. .pptx

Answer: B. .pdf

Explanation: PDF files commonly use the .pdf extension.

23. Which file extension is commonly associated with an Excel workbook?

A. .xlsx

B. .mp3

C. .jpg

D. .html

Answer: A. .xlsx

Explanation: Modern Excel workbooks commonly use the .xlsx extension.

24. What does WWW stand for?

A. World Wide Web

B. World Wireless Window

C. Web Wide Work

D. Wide World Wire

Answer: A. World Wide Web

Explanation: WWW means World Wide Web.

25. What is an IP address used for?

A. Identifying a device or network interface for internet communication

B. Naming a Word document

C. Charging a laptop

D. Formatting a spreadsheet

Answer: A. Identifying a device or network interface for internet communication

Explanation: IP addresses support identification and routing on IP networks.

26. What is a database?

A. An organised collection of data

B. A type of keyboard

C. A monitor setting

D. A computer game

Answer: A. An organised collection of data

Explanation: Databases store and organise data for retrieval and management.

27. What does SQL commonly help users do?

A. Query and manage relational databases

B. Edit videos

C. Create hardware

D. Send radio signals

Answer: A. Query and manage relational databases

Explanation: SQL is used to define, query and manipulate relational databases.

28. Which of these is a search engine?

A. Bing

B. Windows

C. Excel

D. Bluetooth

Answer: A. Bing

Explanation: Bing is a web search engine.

29. What is the purpose of antivirus software?

A. Detect, prevent and remove malicious software

B. Increase internet data allowance

C. Create email accounts

D. Repair a broken screen

Answer: A. Detect, prevent and remove malicious software

Explanation: Antivirus tools help detect and respond to malware.

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30. What is data encryption?

A. Converting information into a coded form to protect it

B. Deleting all information

C. Making files larger

D. Printing data

Answer: A. Converting information into a coded form to protect it

Explanation: Encryption protects confidentiality by making data unreadable without the appropriate key.

31. What is the safest response to an unexpected email attachment?

A. Verify the sender and context before opening it

B. Open it immediately

C. Forward it to everyone

D. Disable security software

Answer: A. Verify the sender and context before opening it

Explanation: Unexpected attachments may contain malware or phishing content.

32. What does CC mean in email?

A. Carbon Copy

B. Computer Code

C. Central Contact

D. Closed Communication

Answer: A. Carbon Copy

Explanation: CC sends a visible copy of an email to additional recipients.

33. What does BCC mean in email?

A. Blind Carbon Copy

B. Basic Computer Code

C. Backup Contact Copy

D. Business Communication Channel

Answer: A. Blind Carbon Copy

Explanation: BCC hides recipients’ email addresses from other recipients.

34. Which shortcut commonly copies selected text in Windows?

A. Ctrl + X

B. Ctrl + C

C. Ctrl + V

D. Ctrl + Z

Answer: B. Ctrl + C

Explanation: Ctrl + C copies selected content.

35. Which shortcut commonly pastes copied text in Windows?

A. Ctrl + P

B. Ctrl + A

C. Ctrl + V

D. Ctrl + S

Answer: C. Ctrl + V

Explanation: Ctrl + V pastes copied content.

36. Which shortcut commonly saves a document?

A. Ctrl + S

B. Ctrl + D

C. Ctrl + R

D. Ctrl + F

Answer: A. Ctrl + S

Explanation: Ctrl + S saves the current document.

37. What is a spreadsheet cell?

A. Intersection of a row and a column

B. A complete worksheet only

C. A printer setting

D. A computer folder

Answer: A. Intersection of a row and a column

Explanation: A cell is identified by its column letter and row number.

38. In Excel, which symbol usually begins a formula?

A. #

B. =

C. &

D. @

Answer: B. =

Explanation: Excel formulas generally begin with an equals sign.

39. What is the purpose of sorting data?

A. Arranging records in a chosen order

B. Deleting duplicate files automatically

C. Encrypting a folder

D. Changing a computer’s operating system

Answer: A. Arranging records in a chosen order

Explanation: Sorting arranges data, for example, alphabetically or numerically.

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40. What does LAN stand for?

A. Local Area Network

B. Long Access Number

C. Linked Application Node

D. Large Automated Network

Answer: A. Local Area Network

Explanation: A LAN connects devices within a limited geographical area.

41. What is Wi-Fi?

A. A wireless networking technology

B. A type of hard disk

C. An antivirus brand

D. A word-processing tool

Answer: A. A wireless networking technology

Explanation: Wi-Fi enables wireless local network connectivity.

42. What does USB stand for?

A. Universal Serial Bus

B. United System Board

C. User Storage Base

D. Universal Signal Band

Answer: A. Universal Serial Bus

Explanation: USB means Universal Serial Bus.

43. What is social engineering?

A. Manipulating people to disclose information or perform unsafe actions

B. Designing a social media logo

C. Installing a printer

D. Writing code only

Answer: A. Manipulating people to disclose information or perform unsafe actions

Explanation: Social engineering exploits human trust and behaviour.

44. Why should public computers be used carefully for sensitive work?

A. They may retain data or expose credentials to others

B. They are always faster

C. They automatically encrypt every file

D. They cannot connect to the internet

Answer: A. They may retain data or expose credentials to others

Explanation: Avoid saving passwords on shared devices and always sign out after use. Public computers may be compromised or retain sensitive information.

Section 4: Workplace Communication, Ethics and Professional Conduct

This section focuses on professional behaviour, workplace communication, ethical responsibilities and administrative skills.

It covers:

• Formal writing and email communication.
• Report writing and proofreading.
• Active listening and communication.
• Confidentiality and information handling.
• Professional ethics and accountability.
• Teamwork and conflict resolution.
• Record keeping and documentation.
• Workplace discipline and responsibility.
• Evidence handling and official conduct.
• Time management and continuous learning.

Practice Questions and Answers

1. A formal report should primarily be ______.

A. Emotional and speculative

B. Clear, factual and organised

C. Full of slang

D. Based on rumours

Answer: B. Clear, factual and organised

Explanation: Official reports should be objective, clear and evidence-based.

2. Which is the most appropriate salutation in a formal email when the recipient’s name is unknown?

A. Hey there

B. Dear Sir/Madam

C. What’s up

D. Hi buddy

Answer: B. Dear Sir/Madam

Explanation: Dear Sir/Madam is a conventional formal salutation.

3. Which subject line is clearest for an email submitting requested documents?

A. Hello

B. Documents

C. Submission of Requested Documents – [Your Name]

D. Important!!!

Answer: C. Submission of Requested Documents – [Your Name]

Explanation: A specific subject line helps the recipient identify the purpose of the email.

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4. Which sentence is most suitable for an official memo?

A. I need this thing ASAP!

B. Please submit the completed schedule by 4:00 p.m. on Friday.

C. You people should hurry up.

D. Send it whenever.

Answer: B. Please submit the completed schedule by 4:00 p.m. on Friday.

Explanation: The sentence is polite, precise and provides a deadline.

5. What is active listening?

A. Paying attention, clarifying and responding appropriately

B. Interrupting frequently

C. Planning a reply without listening

D. Ignoring non-verbal cues

Answer: A. Paying attention, clarifying and responding appropriately

Explanation: Active listening involves giving attention and asking questions to clarify information.

6. Which is an example of confidential information?

A. A published public notice

B. A non-public investigation file

C. A public holiday list

D. A published annual report

Answer: B. A non-public investigation file

Explanation: A non-public investigation file should only be accessed by authorised persons.

7. What should a professional do when they make an error in a report?

A. Conceal it

B. Correct it transparently and notify relevant people where necessary

C. Blame a colleague

D. Delete the entire file without explanation

Answer: B. Correct it transparently and notify relevant people where necessary

Explanation: Prompt and transparent correction protects accuracy and trust.

8. Which communication is best for a complex decision requiring a permanent record?

A. An undocumented corridor conversation

B. A written memo or formal email

C. A rumour

D. An anonymous social post

Answer: B. A written memo or formal email

Explanation: Written communication creates a record for future reference.

9. What is the best way to handle a disagreement at work?

A. Listen, focus on facts and seek a professional resolution

B. Insult the other person

C. Spread rumours

D. Refuse all discussion

Answer: A. Listen, focus on facts and seek a professional resolution

Explanation: Respectful, fact-based discussion supports conflict resolution.

10. What does objective mean in a report?

A. Based on facts rather than personal feelings

B. Written to favour a friend

C. Based on assumptions

D. Intentionally incomplete

Answer: A. Based on facts rather than personal feelings

Explanation: Objectivity means presenting information impartially.

11. Which is a reliable source for an official recruitment update?

A. An anonymous forwarded message

B. The recruiting agency’s official website or verified channel

C. An unverified blog comment

D. A random social media account

Answer: B. The recruiting agency’s official website or verified channel

Explanation: Official channels are the primary sources of authoritative recruitment updates.

12. Good meeting minutes record ______.

A. Only jokes

B. Key discussions, decisions, actions and responsible persons

C. Personal gossip

D. Every unrelated conversation

Answer: B. Key discussions, decisions, actions and responsible persons

Explanation: Meeting minutes capture the essential record of a meeting.

13. Which phrase is most professional when requesting clarification?

A. This makes no sense.

B. Could you please clarify the final requirement?

C. You did not explain anything.

D. Whatever you mean.

Answer: B. Could you please clarify the final requirement?

Explanation: The phrase is courteous and specific.

14. What is proofreading?

A. Checking a document for errors before final use

B. Destroying a draft

C. Translating every word

D. Publishing without review

Answer: A. Checking a document for errors before final use

Explanation: Proofreading checks spelling, grammar, punctuation and presentation.

15. What is plagiarism?

A. Presenting another person’s work or ideas as one’s own without proper acknowledgement

B. Citing a source accurately

C. Writing an original report

D. Checking facts

Answer: A. Presenting another person’s work or ideas as one’s own without proper acknowledgement

Explanation: Plagiarism misrepresents the original authorship of work.

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16. Why should sources be cited in a report?

A. To allow readers to verify information and acknowledge sources

B. To make the report longer

C. To avoid checking accuracy

D. To hide the author

Answer: A. To allow readers to verify information and acknowledge sources

Explanation: Citations support transparency and verification.

17. Which is the clearest instruction?

A. Do it soon.

B. Submit two signed copies to the registry before noon on Monday.

C. Handle the matter.

D. Send it at some point.

Answer: B. Submit two signed copies to the registry before noon on Monday.

Explanation: It specifies the action, quantity, destination and deadline.

18. What should a staff member do with an instruction that appears unlawful?

A. Seek clarification and use appropriate reporting or advice channels

B. Carry it out without question

C. Destroy the instruction

D. Post confidential details online

Answer: A. Seek clarification and use appropriate reporting or advice channels

Explanation: Staff should not knowingly violate the law and should use appropriate channels to address unlawful instructions.

19. Which is an example of non-verbal communication?

A. Facial expression

B. A printed letter

C. An email attachment

D. A report heading

Answer: A. Facial expression

Explanation: Facial expressions communicate information without words.

20. What does professionalism include?

A. Integrity, competence, respect and accountability

B. Favouritism and gossip

C. Avoiding responsibility

D. Ignoring procedures

Answer: A. Integrity, competence, respect and accountability

Explanation: Professional conduct includes ethical and competent behaviour.

21. Which is the best response to a citizen who is upset?

A. Remain calm, listen and explain the next lawful step

B. Shout louder

C. Dismiss the person immediately

D. Make promises you cannot keep

Answer: A. Remain calm, listen and explain the next lawful step

Explanation: Calm and respectful communication can help de-escalate tension.

22. Why is record keeping important?

A. It supports accountability, continuity and verification

B. It prevents all mistakes automatically

C. It replaces every investigation

D. It allows records to be altered secretly

Answer: A. It supports accountability, continuity and verification

Explanation: Accurate records support decision-making and accountability.

23. What should be done before sharing a document externally?

A. Check authorisation, classification and recipient

B. Send it to the largest mailing list

C. Remove all context

D. Assume every document is public

Answer: A. Check authorisation, classification and recipient

Explanation: Information should only be shared with authorised recipients.

24. Which sentence is concise and clear?

A. Due to the fact that the meeting was delayed, it was postponed.

B. Because the meeting was delayed, it was postponed.

C. The meeting, in relation to delay, was postponed.

D. There was a delay which was the reason for postponement.

Answer: B. Because the meeting was delayed, it was postponed.

Explanation: The sentence communicates the point directly.

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25. What is the purpose of an agenda?

A. To outline topics and guide a meeting

B. To record final decisions after a meeting

C. To replace all minutes

D. To announce staff salaries

Answer: A. To outline topics and guide a meeting

Explanation: An agenda helps participants prepare and keeps discussions focused.

26. Which is a suitable response when you do not know an answer?

A. Invent an answer

B. State that you will verify the information and follow up

C. Blame the questioner

D. Ignore the question

Answer: B. State that you will verify the information and follow up

Explanation: Honesty and verification are preferable to guessing.

27. What does discretion mean in handling sensitive matters?

A. Using sound judgement about what information to share and with whom

B. Sharing everything publicly

C. Avoiding all documentation

D. Making decisions based on rumours

Answer: A. Using sound judgement about what information to share and with whom

Explanation: Discretion involves careful and responsible judgement.

28. Which quality is essential when handling evidence?

A. Carelessness

B. Accuracy and integrity

C. Personal preference

D. Secrecy from authorised supervisors

Answer: B. Accuracy and integrity

Explanation: Evidence must be handled accurately and with integrity.

29. What is a deadline?

A. The latest time by which something should be completed

B. The date a task begins

C. A meeting location

D. A job title

Answer: A. The latest time by which something should be completed

Explanation: A deadline is the final time or date for completing a task.

30. Which approach improves teamwork?

A. Clear roles, communication and mutual respect

B. Withholding information

C. Competing to hide mistakes

D. Ignoring agreed responsibilities

Answer: A. Clear roles, communication and mutual respect

Explanation: Teamwork relies on coordination and respect.

31. What is feedback?

A. Information intended to help assess or improve performance

B. A punishment in every case

C. A rumour

D. A formal appointment

Answer: A. Information intended to help assess or improve performance

Explanation: Feedback provides information about performance or work.

32. Which action demonstrates accountability?

A. Accepting responsibility and explaining actions

B. Blaming others automatically

C. Hiding mistakes

D. Refusing to report outcomes

Answer: A. Accepting responsibility and explaining actions

Explanation: Accountability means being answerable for decisions and actions.

33. What is the best practice when using statistics in a report?

A. State the source, date and relevant context

B. Use figures without explanation

C. Change figures to fit a conclusion

D. Ignore the sample size

Answer: A. State the source, date and relevant context

Explanation: Context and sourcing make statistics easier to interpret and verify.

34. What is an executive summary?

A. A brief overview of a report’s key points and recommendations

B. A list of every source only

C. A personal biography

D. A transcript of all meetings

Answer: A. A brief overview of a report’s key points and recommendations

Explanation: An executive summary gives decision-makers a concise overview of a report.

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35. Which is a strong workplace habit?

A. Prioritising tasks and meeting agreed deadlines

B. Frequently missing deadlines

C. Avoiding planning

D. Leaving tasks undocumented

Answer: A. Prioritising tasks and meeting agreed deadlines

Explanation: Planning and reliability improve workplace performance.

36. What should you do if you receive a suspicious request for a colleague’s login details?

A. Refuse to share credentials and report through security channels

B. Send the password

C. Ask for a personal favour in return

D. Post the request publicly with the password

Answer: A. Refuse to share credentials and report through security channels

Explanation: Login credentials must remain private, and suspicious requests should be reported.

37. Why should an official avoid discussing an active case on social media?

A. It may breach confidentiality, prejudice proceedings or compromise an investigation

B. Social media is always illegal

C. All public discussion is harmless

D. It automatically closes a case

Answer: A. It may breach confidentiality, prejudice proceedings or compromise an investigation

Explanation: Public disclosure can undermine privacy and investigative integrity.

38. Which is the best way to prioritise urgent tasks?

A. Assess deadlines, impact and risk, then organise work

B. Do only the easiest tasks

C. Ignore instructions

D. Choose tasks randomly

Answer: A. Assess deadlines, impact and risk, then organise work

Explanation: Prioritisation should reflect urgency and importance.

39. What is a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)?

A. A documented set of steps for carrying out a task consistently

B. A personal opinion

C. A recruitment advert

D. An informal rumour

Answer: A. A documented set of steps for carrying out a task consistently

Explanation: SOPs standardise work and support consistency.

40. Why is continuous learning important for investigators and public servants?

A. Laws, methods and technology change over time

B. It removes the need for ethics

C. It guarantees promotion

D. It replaces practical experience

Answer: A. Laws, methods and technology change over time

Explanation: Continuous learning helps staff remain competent and effective.

Section 5: General Knowledge, Economics and International Organisations

This section covers general knowledge, economic concepts, international organisations and important public administration principles.

It includes questions on:

• Nigerian economic institutions.
• Gross Domestic Product and inflation.
• Government budgets and public finance.
• Entrepreneurship and financial literacy.
• International organisations.
• The United Nations and African Union.
• ECOWAS and other regional institutions.
• Sustainable development and climate change.
• Public accountability and transparency.
• Economic and financial concepts.

Practice Questions and Answers

1. What does GDP stand for?

A. Gross Domestic Product

B. General Domestic Price

C. Gross Development Plan

D. Government Debt Position

Answer: A. Gross Domestic Product

Explanation: GDP measures the value of final goods and services produced within an economy over a period.

2. Inflation refers to ______.

A. A sustained rise in the general price level

B. A fall in all wages

C. An increase in rainfall

D. A reduction in population

Answer: A. A sustained rise in the general price level

Explanation: Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level.

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3. Which institution is responsible for monetary policy in Nigeria?

A. CBN

B. INEC

C. EFCC

D. NBS

Answer: A. CBN

Explanation: The Central Bank of Nigeria is the country’s monetary authority.

4. What is a budget?

A. A plan of expected income and expenditure

B. A criminal charge

C. A court order

D. A staff identity card

Answer: A. A plan of expected income and expenditure

Explanation: A budget estimates revenue and spending for a specific period.

5. What is a deficit budget?

A. Spending exceeds revenue

B. Revenue exceeds spending

C. Revenue equals spending

D. No spending is planned

Answer: A. Spending exceeds revenue

Explanation: A deficit occurs when expenditure is greater than revenue.

6. What is an entrepreneur?

A. A person who organises a venture and takes business risks

B. A person who only receives wages

C. A court official

D. A tax category

Answer: A. A person who organises a venture and takes business risks

Explanation: Entrepreneurs identify opportunities and organise resources to create value.

7. What is a conflict of interest in public service?

A. A private interest that could improperly affect official judgement

B. A disagreement about office temperature

C. A lawful public consultation

D. A staff training session

Answer: A. A private interest that could improperly affect official judgement

Explanation: A conflict of interest can compromise impartiality and must be properly managed.

8. What does NGO stand for?

A. Non-Governmental Organisation

B. National Government Office

C. New General Order

D. Non-General Operation

Answer: A. Non-Governmental Organisation

Explanation: NGO means Non-Governmental Organisation.

9. What does AU stand for?

A. African Union

B. Asian Union

C. Atlantic Understanding

D. African University

Answer: A. African Union

Explanation: The African Union is a continental organisation.

10. Where is the headquarters of the African Union?

A. Lagos

B. Addis Ababa

C. Nairobi

D. Accra

Answer: B. Addis Ababa

Explanation: The African Union headquarters is in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.

11. What does ECOWAS stand for?

A. Economic Community of West African States

B. European Council of West African Societies

C. Economic Council of World African States

D. East Coast Organisation of West African States

Answer: A. Economic Community of West African States

Explanation: ECOWAS means Economic Community of West African States.

12. Where is the ECOWAS Commission headquarters?

A. Abuja

B. Dakar

C. Accra

D. Monrovia

Answer: A. Abuja

Explanation: The ECOWAS Commission is headquartered in Abuja, Nigeria.

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13. What does UN stand for?

A. United Nations

B. Union of Nations

C. Universal Network

D. United Neighbourhoods

Answer: A. United Nations

Explanation: UN means United Nations.

14. Where is the United Nations headquarters?

A. Geneva

B. New York City

C. Paris

D. Rome

Answer: B. New York City

Explanation: The United Nations headquarters is in New York City, United States.

15. What is the main purpose of the World Health Organization?

A. International public health

B. Global banking

C. International elections

D. Oil production

Answer: A. International public health

Explanation: The World Health Organization coordinates international public health work.

16. What does WHO stand for?

A. World Health Organization

B. World Housing Office

C. Western Health Organisation

D. World Human Order

Answer: A. World Health Organization

Explanation: WHO means World Health Organization.

17. What does UNESCO stand for?

A. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

B. United Nations Economic Security Council Office

C. Universal Network for Science and Culture

D. United Nations Environmental and Social Council

Answer: A. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

Explanation: UNESCO works in education, science, culture and communication.

18. What is the main role of the International Monetary Fund?

A. Promote international monetary cooperation and financial stability

B. Conduct national elections

C. Enforce criminal law in Nigeria

D. Manage public universities

Answer: A. Promote international monetary cooperation and financial stability

Explanation: The IMF supports international monetary cooperation and financial stability.

19. What is the World Bank broadly known for?

A. Development financing and support

B. Conducting criminal trials

C. Issuing Nigerian currency

D. Regulating Nigerian elections

Answer: A. Development financing and support

Explanation: The World Bank provides development financing and expertise.

20. What is the rule of law?

A. Everyone, including government, is subject to the law

B. Officials are above the law

C. Only citizens obey the law

D. Courts may ignore statutes

Answer: A. Everyone, including government, is subject to the law

Explanation: The rule of law requires lawful authority, equality before the law and accountability.

21. What is human trafficking?

A. Recruitment or movement of people for exploitation through prohibited means or circumstances under law

B. Ordinary lawful travel

C. A university admission process

D. A voluntary job interview

Answer: A. Recruitment or movement of people for exploitation through prohibited means or circumstances under law

Explanation: Trafficking involves exploitation and prohibited means or purposes as defined by law.

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22. What is the purpose of a census?

A. To count and collect information about a population

B. To calculate company profit

C. To register political parties

D. To issue bank cards

Answer: A. To count and collect information about a population

Explanation: A census provides population data for planning and development.

23. What is sustainable development?

A. Meeting present needs without compromising future generations’ ability to meet theirs

B. Using all resources immediately

C. Stopping all economic activity

D. Focusing only on short-term profit

Answer: A. Meeting present needs without compromising future generations’ ability to meet theirs

Explanation: This is the widely used definition of sustainable development.

24. Which is a renewable energy source?

A. Solar

B. Coal

C. Petroleum

D. Natural gas

Answer: A. Solar

Explanation: Solar energy is renewable.

25. Which is a non-renewable fossil fuel?

A. Wind

B. Solar

C. Coal

D. Tidal

Answer: C. Coal

Explanation: Coal is a fossil fuel and is non-renewable on human timescales.

26. What is climate change?

A. Long-term shifts in climate patterns, including those driven by human activity

B. A daily change in weather only

C. A change in one afternoon’s temperature

D. A seasonal festival

Answer: A. Long-term shifts in climate patterns, including those driven by human activity

Explanation: Climate change refers to long-term changes in climate patterns.

27. What is the main function of the police?

A. Prevent and detect crime and maintain public safety under law

B. Make national budgets

C. Conduct university admissions

D. Issue passports

Answer: A. Prevent and detect crime and maintain public safety under law

Explanation: Police functions include crime prevention, detection and public safety.

28. What is the purpose of a court?

A. To adjudicate disputes and administer justice

B. To conduct elections

C. To issue currency

D. To recruit all civil servants

Answer: A. To adjudicate disputes and administer justice

Explanation: Courts resolve legal disputes and determine cases.

29. What is a civil society organisation?

A. A non-state organisation through which people pursue shared public or community interests

B. A government ministry

C. A private criminal court

D. A military unit

Answer: A. A non-state organisation through which people pursue shared public or community interests

Explanation: Civil society organisations operate outside the state and business sectors.

30. What is financial literacy?

A. The ability to understand and manage money and financial decisions

B. The ability to read only legal documents

C. Knowing how to operate a printer

D. Memorising currency colours

Answer: A. The ability to understand and manage money and financial decisions

Explanation: Financial literacy includes budgeting, saving, borrowing and risk awareness.

31. What is compound interest?

A. Interest calculated on principal and accumulated interest

B. Interest calculated only on the original principal

C. A tax penalty

D. A bank account fee

Answer: A. Interest calculated on principal and accumulated interest

Explanation: Compound interest earns interest on previously accumulated interest.

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32. What is a cooperative society?

A. A member-owned organisation formed to meet shared economic or social needs

B. A branch of the judiciary

C. A political party by definition

D. A foreign embassy

Answer: A. A member-owned organisation formed to meet shared economic or social needs

Explanation: Cooperatives are jointly owned and democratically controlled by their members.

33. What is unemployment?

A. A situation where people who are available and seeking work cannot find work

B. A person taking annual leave

C. A person who has retired by choice

D. A student attending class

Answer: A. A situation where people who are available and seeking work cannot find work

Explanation: Unemployment concerns people without work who are available and seeking it, subject to the applicable statistical definition.

34. What is productivity?

A. Output produced relative to inputs used

B. The number of public holidays

C. A company’s logo

D. A worker’s age

Answer: A. Output produced relative to inputs used

Explanation: Productivity measures how efficiently inputs are converted into output.

35. What is a public-private partnership (PPP)?

A. A cooperation arrangement between government and private entities to provide infrastructure or services

B. A private family agreement

C. A court appeal

D. A political campaign

Answer: A. A cooperation arrangement between government and private entities to provide infrastructure or services

Explanation: PPPs allocate responsibilities and risks between public and private partners.

36. What is a constitutionally protected fundamental right?

A. A right recognised and protected by the Constitution, subject to lawful limits

B. A privilege granted only by an employer

C. A social media trend

D. A company benefit

Answer: A. A right recognised and protected by the Constitution, subject to lawful limits

Explanation: Fundamental rights are legally protected, although some may be limited under constitutional rules.

37. What is a referendum?

A. A direct vote by the electorate on a specific question

B. A routine staff appraisal

C. A criminal investigation

D. A parliamentary committee meeting

Answer: A. A direct vote by the electorate on a specific question

Explanation: A referendum puts a specific question directly to voters.

38. What is diplomacy?

A. Conduct of relations between states through negotiation and other peaceful means

B. A method of calculating tax

C. A criminal sentencing process

D. A computer security protocol

Answer: A. Conduct of relations between states through negotiation and other peaceful means

Explanation: Diplomacy manages relations between countries.

39. What is foreign direct investment?

A. Investment by an entity or person in a business in another country with lasting interest or influence

B. A domestic cash withdrawal

C. A government salary

D. A local tax payment

Answer: A. Investment by an entity or person in a business in another country with lasting interest or influence

Explanation: Foreign direct investment generally involves a lasting interest in an enterprise located abroad.

40. What is a recession commonly understood to be?

A. A significant decline in economic activity across the economy

B. A rise in every household’s income

C. A period of zero inflation only

D. An increase in exports only

Answer: A. A significant decline in economic activity across the economy

Explanation: A recession is a broad decline in economic activity. Technical definitions vary.

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41. What is an exchange rate?

A. The price of one currency expressed in another currency

B. The interest on a savings account

C. A tax rate

D. The price of crude oil only

Answer: A. The price of one currency expressed in another currency

Explanation: An exchange rate shows how much one currency is worth in another currency.

42. What does the term public funds mean?

A. Money belonging to or controlled by government for public purposes

B. Only money held by private citizens

C. A personal staff allowance

D. An unrecorded donation

Answer: A. Money belonging to or controlled by government for public purposes

Explanation: Public funds are public resources and must be managed lawfully.

43. Why is transparency important in public procurement?

A. It helps expose decisions to scrutiny and reduce opportunities for favouritism

B. It guarantees every bid wins

C. It removes the need for competition

D. It permits secret payments

Answer: A. It helps expose decisions to scrutiny and reduce opportunities for favouritism

Explanation: Transparency supports fair competition and accountability.

44. What is a key purpose of internal controls in an organisation?

A. Safeguarding assets and supporting reliable operations and reporting

B. Preventing all staff communication

C. Guaranteeing profit

D. Replacing external law

Answer: A. Safeguarding assets and supporting reliable operations and reporting

Explanation: Internal controls reduce risks and promote reliable organisational processes.

45. What is the purpose of whistleblowing channels?

A. To enable reporting of suspected misconduct safely and appropriately

B. To spread unverified gossip

C. To bypass every legal process

D. To publish private data

Answer: A. To enable reporting of suspected misconduct safely and appropriately

Explanation: Proper reporting channels help organisations receive and assess concerns.

How to Use the EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions

Candidates should use the practice questions as a revision resource and attempt to answer each question before checking the correct answer and explanation.

For effective preparation:

1. Attempt each question independently before checking the answer.
2. Practise under timed conditions to improve your speed and accuracy.
3. Review incorrect answers and understand the explanations.
4. Write down important facts, definitions, laws and concepts that you need to remember.
5. Revise Nigerian current affairs and recent developments close to the examination date.
6. Repeat questions you previously answered incorrectly.
7. Practise all five sections rather than concentrating on only one subject.

Important Things to Know Before Using This Practice Pack

• The 230 questions are independently prepared revision questions.
• They are not leaked EFCC examination questions.
• They are not an official EFCC past-question compilation.
• The practice pack does not represent an official EFCC examination syllabus.
• Practising these questions does not guarantee that the same questions or topics will appear in the actual CBT.
• Candidates should follow official EFCC recruitment announcements for examination dates, instructions and requirements.
• Candidates should verify time-sensitive legal and government information against current official sources.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are in the EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Pack?

The practice pack contains 230 questions divided into five sections covering Nigerian government and history, EFCC knowledge, ICT, workplace communication and ethics, and general knowledge and economics.

Does the EFCC CBT practice pack include answers?

Yes. Every question includes the correct answer and an explanation.

Are these actual EFCC past questions?

No. These are independently prepared practice questions. They are not presented as verified EFCC past questions or leaked examination questions.

What subjects should I study for the EFCC recruitment CBT?

This practice pack covers Nigerian government and history, EFCC operations, anti-corruption principles, ICT, workplace communication, professional ethics, general knowledge and economics.

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How can I prepare effectively for the EFCC CBT?

Practise multiple-choice questions, revise relevant subjects, understand the explanations, improve your time management and follow official recruitment announcements.

Does practising these questions guarantee success in the EFCC recruitment examination?

No. The practice questions are revision materials and cannot guarantee examination success or predict the exact questions in the CBT.

Our Take: Who Should Use These Practice Questions?

The EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers are suitable for candidates preparing for recruitment examinations conducted by the Economic and Financial Crimes Commission.

Candidates interested in investigation, financial crime prevention, public administration and law enforcement may find the questions particularly useful for revising relevant knowledge.

The five sections provide a broad revision resource covering government, financial crimes, technology, workplace ethics and general knowledge.

Candidates should combine this practice pack with independent study and official recruitment information.

Conclusion

The EFCC Recruitment CBT Practice Questions and Answers contain 230 multiple-choice practice questions designed to help candidates prepare for the Economic and Financial Crimes Commission recruitment examination.

The material covers five major areas, with answers and explanations provided to support independent revision.

Candidates should use the questions to assess their knowledge, identify areas requiring improvement and practise answering questions under timed conditions.

Important Notice: This is an independently prepared examination practice resource. It is not an official EFCC publication, confirmed examination syllabus, verified past-question compilation or leaked examination paper.